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Question #41

Which of the following types of SOC reports BEST helps to ensure operating effectiveness of controls in a cloud service provider offering?

A . SOC 3 Type 2
B . SOC 2 Type 2
C . SOC 1 Type 1
D . SOC 2 Type 1

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Question #42

Which of the following would be the MOST critical finding of an application security and DevOps audit?

A . Certifications with global security standards specific to cloud are not reviewed, and the impact of noted findings are not assessed.
B . Application architecture and configurations did not consider security measures.
C . Outsourced cloud service interruption, breach, or loss of stored data occurred at the cloud service
provider.
D . The organization is not using a unified framework to integrate cloud compliance with regulatory requirements

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Richtige Antwort: B
B

Explanation:

According to the web search results, the most critical finding of an application security and DevOps audit would be that the application architecture and configurations did not consider security measures. This finding indicates a serious lack of security by design and security by default principles, which are essential for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the application and its data. If the application architecture and configurations are not secure, they could expose the application to various threats and vulnerabilities, such as unauthorized access, data breaches, denial-of-service attacks, injection attacks, cross-site scripting attacks, and others. This finding could also result in non-compliance with relevant security standards and regulations, such as ISO 27001, PCI DSS, GDPR, and others. Therefore, this finding should be addressed with high priority and urgency by implementing appropriate security measures and controls in the application architecture and configurations.

The other options are not as critical as option

B.

Option A is a moderate finding that indicates a lack

of awareness and assessment of the global security standards specific to cloud, such as ISO 27017,

ISO 27018, CSA CCM, NIST SP 800-53, and others. This finding could affect the security and

compliance of the cloud services used by the application, but it does not directly impact the

application itself.

Option C is a severe finding that indicates a major incident that occurred at the

cloud service provider level, such as a service interruption, breach, or loss of stored data. This finding

could affect the availability, confidentiality, and integrity of the application and its data, but it is not

caused by the application itself.

Option D is a minor finding that indicates a lack of efficiency and

consistency in integrating cloud compliance with regulatory requirements. This finding could affect

the compliance posture of the application and its data, but it does not directly impact the security or

functionality of the application.

Reference: [Application Security Best Practices – OWASP]

[DevSecOps: What It Is and How to Get Started – ISACA]

[Cloud Security Standards: What to Expect & What to Negotiate – CSA] [Cloud Computing Security Audit – ISACA] [Cloud Computing Incident Response – ISACA]

[Cloud Compliance: A Framework for Using Cloud Services While Maintaining Compliance – ISACA]

Question #43

From the perspective of a senior cloud security audit practitioner in an organization with a mature security program and cloud adoption, which of the following statements BEST describes the DevSecOps concept?

A . Process of security integration using automation in software development
B . Operational framework that promotes software consistency through automation
C . Development standards for addressing integration, testing, and deployment issues
D . Making software development simpler, faster, and easier using automation

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Question #44

Transparent data encryption is used for:

A . data across communication channels.
B . data currently being processed.
C . data in random access memory (RAM).
D . data and log files at rest

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Question #45

Regarding suppliers of a cloud service provider, it is MOST important for the auditor to be aware that the:

A . client organization has a clear understanding of the provider s suppliers.
B . suppliers are accountable for the provider’s service that they are providing.
C . client organization does not need to worry about the provider’s suppliers, as this is the provider’s responsibility.
D . client organization and provider are both responsible for the provider’s suppliers.

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Richtige Antwort: A
A

Explanation:

Regarding suppliers of a cloud service provider, it is most important for the auditor to be aware that the client organization has a clear understanding of the provider’s suppliers. This is because cloud services often involve multiple parties in the supply chain, such as cloud providers, sub-providers, brokers, carriers, and auditors. Each party may have different roles and responsibilities in delivering the cloud services and ensuring their quality, security, and compliance. Therefore, it is essential for the client organization to have visibility and assurance of the performance and compliance of the provider’s suppliers and to establish clear and transparent agreements with them regarding their roles, responsibilities, expectations, and obligations.12

An auditor should be aware of the importance of the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers because it provides a basis for assessing the risks and challenges associated with outsourcing services to a cloud provider and its supply chain. An auditor can use the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers to verify that the client organization has conducted a thorough due diligence of the provider’s suppliers and their capabilities, qualifications, certifications, and reputation. An auditor can also use the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers to evaluate whether the client organization has implemented adequate controls and processes to monitor, audit, or verify the security and compliance status of their cloud services and data across the supply chain. An auditor can also use the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers to identify any gaps or weaknesses in the client organization’s security management program and to provide recommendations for improvement.34

Reference: = Practical Guide to Cloud Service Agreements Version 2.01; HIDDEN INTERDEPENDENCIES BETWEEN INFORMATION AND ORGANIZATIONAL …2; Cloud Computing: The Audit Challenge – ISACA3; Cloud Computing: Audit Considerations – AICPA4

Question #46

Which of the following BEST ensures adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment?

A . Separation of production and development pipelines
B . Ensuring segregation of duties in the production and development pipelines
C . Role-based access controls in the production and development pipelines
D . Periodic review of the continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) pipeline audit logs to identify any access violations

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Richtige Antwort: C
C

Explanation:

Role-based access controls (RBAC) are a method of restricting access to resources based on the roles of individual users within an organization. RBAC allows administrators to assign permissions to roles, rather than to specific users, and then assign users to those roles. This simplifies the management of access rights and reduces the risk of unauthorized or excessive access. RBAC is especially important for ensuring adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment, which is the final stage of the continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) process where code is deployed to the end-users. Access to the production environment should be limited to only those who are responsible for deploying, monitoring, and maintaining the code, such as production engineers, release managers, or site reliability engineers. Developers, testers, or other stakeholders should not have access to the production environment, as this could compromise the security, quality, and performance of the code. RBAC can help enforce this separation of duties and responsibilities by defining different roles for different pipeline stages and granting appropriate permissions to each role. For example, developers may have permission to create, edit, and test code in the development pipeline, but not to deploy or modify code in the production pipeline.

Conversely, production engineers may have permission to deploy, monitor, and troubleshoot code in the production pipeline, but not to create or edit code in the development pipeline. RBAC can also help implement the principle of least privilege, which states that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. This reduces the attack surface and minimizes the potential damage in case of a breach or misuse. RBAC can be configured at different levels of granularity, such as at the organization, project, or object level, depending on the needs and complexity of the organization. RBAC can also leverage existing identity and access management (IAM) solutions, such as Azure Active Directory or AWS IAM, to integrate with cloud services and applications.

Reference: Set pipeline permissions – Azure Pipelines

Azure DevOps: Access, Roles and Permissions

Cloud Computing ― What IT Auditors Should Really Know

Question #47

When applying the Top Threats Analysis methodology following an incident, what is the scope of the technical impact identification step?

A . Determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system.
B . Determine the impact on the physical and environmental security of the organization, excluding informational assets.
C . Determine the impact on the controls that were selected by the organization to respond to identified risks.
D . Determine the impact on the financial, operational, compliance, and reputation of the organization.

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Richtige Antwort: A
A

Explanation:

When applying the Top Threats Analysis methodology following an incident, the scope of the technical impact identification step is to determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system. The Top Threats Analysis methodology is a process developed by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) to help organizations identify, analyze, and mitigate the top threats to cloud computing, as defined in the CSA Top Threats reports.

The methodology consists of six steps1:

Scope definition: Define the scope of the analysis, such as the cloud service model, deployment model, and business context.

Threat identification: Identify the relevant threats from the CSA Top Threats reports that may affect the scope of the analysis.

Technical impact identification: Determine the impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information system caused by each threat. Confidentiality refers to the protection of data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Integrity refers to the protection of data from unauthorized modification or deletion. Availability refers to the protection of data and services from disruption or denial.

Business impact identification: Determine the impact on the business objectives and operations caused by each threat, such as financial loss, reputational damage, legal liability, or regulatory compliance.

Risk assessment: Assess the likelihood and severity of each threat based on the technical and business impacts, and prioritize the threats according to their risk level.

Risk treatment: Select and implement appropriate risk treatment options for each threat, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer, or acceptance.

The technical impact identification step is important because it helps to measure the extent of damage or harm that each threat can cause to the information system and its components. This step also helps to align the technical impacts with the business impacts and to support the risk assessment and treatment steps.

Reference: = CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 4: A Threat Analysis Methodology for Cloud Using CCM, page 81

Question #48

During the cloud service provider evaluation process, which of the following BEST helps identify baseline configuration requirements?

A . Vendor requirements
B . Product benchmarks
C . Benchmark controls lists
D . Contract terms and conditions

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Richtige Antwort: C
C

Explanation:

: During the cloud service provider evaluation process, benchmark controls lists BEST help identify baseline configuration requirements. Benchmark controls lists are standardized sets of security and compliance controls that are applicable to different cloud service models, deployment models, and industry sectors1. They provide a common framework and language for assessing and comparing the security posture and capabilities of cloud service providers2. They also help cloud customers to define their own security and compliance requirements and expectations based on best practices and industry standards3.

Some examples of benchmark controls lists are:

The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM), which is a comprehensive list of 133 control objectives that cover 16 domains of cloud security4.

The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-53, which is a catalog of 325 security and privacy controls for federal information systems and organizations, including cloud-based systems5.

The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) / International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) 27017, which is a code of practice that provides guidance on 121 information security controls for cloud services based on ISO/IEC 270026.

Vendor requirements, product benchmarks, and contract terms and conditions are not the best sources for identifying baseline configuration requirements. Vendor requirements are the specifications and expectations that the cloud service provider has for its customers, such as minimum hardware, software, network, or support requirements7. Product benchmarks are the measurements and comparisons of the performance, quality, or features of different cloud services or products8. Contract terms and conditions are the legal agreements that define the rights, obligations, and responsibilities of the parties involved in a cloud service contract9. These sources may provide some information on the configuration requirements, but they are not as comprehensive, standardized, or objective as benchmark controls lists.

Reference: CSA Security Guidance for Cloud Computing | CSA1, section on Identify necessary security and compliance requirements

Evaluation Criteria for Cloud Infrastructure as a Service – Gartner2, section on Security Controls Checklist: Cloud Services Provider Evaluation Criteria | Synoptek3, section on Security Cloud Controls Matrix | CSA4, section on Overview

NIST Special Publication 800-53 – NIST Pages5, section on Abstract

ISO/IEC 27017:2015(en), Information technology ― Security techniques …6, section on Scope What is vendor management? Definition from WhatIs.com7, section on Vendor management What is Benchmarking? Definition from WhatIs.com8, section on Benchmarking

What is Terms and Conditions? Definition from WhatIs.com9, section on Terms and Conditions

Question #49

Which of the following cloud service models creates a cloud version of a contract template?

A . Platform as a Service (PaaS)
B . Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)
C . Software as a Service (SaaS)
D . Security as a Service (SecaaS)

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Question #50

The control domain feature within a Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) represents:

A . CCM’s ability to scan and check Active Directory, LDAP, and x.500 directories for suspicious and/or privileged user accounts.
B . a logical grouping of security controls addressing the same category of IT risks or information security concerns.
C . a set of application programming interfaces (APIs) that allows a cloud consumer to restrict the replication area within a well-defined jurisdictional perimeter.
D . CCM’s ability to scan for anomalies in DNS zones in order to detect DNS spoofing, DNS hijacking, DNS cache poisoning, and similar threats.

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